Search Results

DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 4: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Bhargav and Pranav played a game, in which Bhargav randomly picked four marbles from a bag containing a large number of marbles of each of four different colours – Blue, Red, Yellow and Grey – and arranged them in four positions labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4. Pranav knows that the bag has marbles of these four colours but is not aware of the exact colours of the marbles that Bhargav picked or the positions in which Bhargav placed the marbles. In each attempt, Pranav had to guess the colours of the four marbles and positions in which they were placed. After every guess that Pranav makes, Bhargav provides a three-digit number, called Guess Accuracy Number (GAN), which provides the following information, for each guess that Pranav makes: The first digit (left-most digit) denotes the number of marbles that are of the correct colour and in the correct position. The second digit (middle digit) denotes the number of marbles that are of the correct colour but in the wrong position. The third digit (right-most digit) denotes the number of marbles that are neither of the correct colour nor in the correct position. For example, if Pranav guessed the colours of the four marbles to be Grey, Red, Yellow and Grey in positions 1, 2, 3 and 4, respectively, then a GAN of 211 indicates that 2 marbles are of the correct colour and correct position, and 1 marble is of the correct colour but in the incorrect position and 1 marble is neither of the correct colour nor in the correct position. The game ends when Pranav correctly guesses the colour and positions of all the four marbles, and it is known that Pranav was able to correctly guess the colour and positions of the four marbles in his seventh attempt. The first table below provides the GAN for each attempt that Pranav made. The second table provides the colours that Pranav guessed for each position in each attempt, but not necessarily in the order of attempts. ADVERTISEMENT How many yellow marbles did Bhargav pick? In the fifth attempt, what is the colour of the marble that Pranav guessed to be in the third position? Hanu, a logician, did not know either the colours of the marbles that Bhargav picked or the positions in which they were placed, but he was aware of the attempts that Pranav made and the GAN of each attempt. What is the earliest attempt after which Hanu can be sure of the colours and positions of the four marbles that Bhargav picked? In which of the attempt did Pranav guess yellow to have been in the first position? Solutions to the puzzle: Zero Grey 2 6 We have uploaded the solution of this puzzle in the comments.

Source: https://eos.com/blog/monoculture-farming/ Cultivation of a single crop on a given tract of land leads eventually to decreased yields. One reason for this is that harmful bacterial phytopathogens, organisms parasitic on plant hosts, increase in the soil surrounding plant roots. The problem can be cured by crop rotation, denying the pathogens a suitable host for a period of time. However, even if crops are not rotated, the severity of diseases brought on by such phytopathogens often decreases after a number of years as the microbial population of the soil changes and the soil becomes “suppressive” to those diseases. While there may be many reasons for this phenomenon, it is clear that levels of certain bacteria, such as Pseudomonas fluorescens, a bacterium antagonistic to a number of harmful phytopathogens, are greater in suppressive than in nonsuppressive soil. This suggests that the presence of such bacteria suppresses phytopathogens. There is now considerable experimental support for this view. Wheat yield increases of 27 percent have been obtained in field trials by treatment of wheat seeds with fluorescent pseudomonads. Similar treatment of sugar beets, cotton, and potatoes has had similar results. ADVERTISEMENT These improvements in crop yields through the application of Pseudomonas fluorescens suggest that agriculture could benefit from the use of bacteria genetically altered for specific purposes. For example, a form of phytopathogen altered to remove its harmful properties could be released into the environment in quantities favorable to its competing with and eventually excluding the harmful normal strain. Some experiments suggest that deliberately releasing altered nonpathogenic Pseudomonas syringae could crowd out the nonaltered variety that causes frost damage. Opponents of such research have objected that the deliberate and large-scale release of genetically altered bacteria might have deleterious results. Proponents, on the other hand, argue that this particular strain is altered only by the removal of the gene responsible for the strain’s propensity to cause frost damage, thereby rendering it safer than the phytopathogen from which it was derived. ADVERTISEMENT Some proponents have gone further and suggest that genetic alteration techniques could create organisms with totally new combinations of desirable traits not found in nature. For example, genes responsible for production of insecticidal compounds have been transposed from other bacteria into pseudomonads that colonize corn roots. Experiments of this kind are difficult and require great care: such bacteria are developed in highly artificial environments and may not compete well with natural soil bacteria. Nevertheless, proponents contend that the prospects for improved agriculture through such methods seem excellent. These prospects lead many to hope that current efforts to assess the risks of deliberate release of altered microorganisms will successfully answer the concerns of opponents and create a climate in which such research can go forward without undue impediment. ADVERTISEMENT 1. Which one of the following best summarizes the main idea of the passage? (A) Recent field experiments with genetically altered Pseudomonas bacteria have shown that releasing genetically altered bacteria into the environment would not involve any significant danger. (B) Encouraged by current research, advocates of agricultural use of genetically altered bacteria are optimistic that such use will eventually result in improved agriculture, though opponents remain wary. (C) Current research indicates that adding genetically altered Pseudomonas syringae bacteria to the soil surrounding crop plant roots will have many beneficial effects, such as the prevention of frost damage in certain crops. (D) Genetic alteration of a number of harmful phytopathogens has been advocated by many researchers who contend that these techniques will eventually replace such outdated methods as crop rotation. (E) Genetic alteration of bacteria has been successful in highly artificial laboratory conditions, but opponents of such research have argued that these techniques are unlikely to produce organisms that are able to survive in natural environments. 2. The author discusses naturally occurring Pseudomonas fluorescens bacteria in the first paragraph primarily in order to do which one of the following? (A) prove that increases in the level of such bacteria in the soil are the sole cause of soil suppressivity (B) explain why yields increased after wheat fields were sprayed with altered Pseudomonas fluorescens bacteria (C) detail the chemical processes that such bacteria use to suppress organisms parasitic to crop plants, such as wheat, sugar beets, and potatoes (D) provide background information to support the argument that research into the agricultural use of genetically altered bacteria would be fruitful (E) argue that crop rotation is unnecessary, since diseases brought on by phytopathogens diminish in severity and eventually disappear on their own 3. It can be inferred from the author’s discussion of Pseudomonas fluorescens bacteria that which one of the following would be true of crops impervious to parasitical organisms? (A) Pseudomonas fluorescens bacteria would be absent from the soil surrounding their roots. (B) They would crowd out and eventually exclude other crop plants if their growth were not carefully regulated. (C) Their yield would not be likely to be improved by adding Pseudomonas fluorescens bacteria to the soil. (D) They would mature more quickly than crop plants that were susceptible to parasitical organisms. (E) Levels of phytopathogenic bacteria in the soil surrounding their roots would be higher compared with other crop plants. 4. It can be inferred from the passage that crop rotation can increase yields in part because (A) moving crop plants around makes them hardier and more resistant to disease (B) the number of Pseudomonas fluorescens bacteria in the soil usually increases when crops are rotated (C) the roots of many crop plants produce compounds that are antagonistic to phytopathogens harmful to other crop plants (D) the presence of phytopathogenic bacteria is responsible for the majority of plant diseases (E) phytopathogens typically attack some plant species but find other species to be unsuitable hosts 5. According to the passage, proponents of the use of genetically altered bacteria in agriculture argue that which one of the following is true of the altered bacteria used in the frost-damage experiments? (A) The altered bacteria had a genetic constitution differing from that of the normal strain only in that the altered variety had one less gene. (B) Although the altered bacteria competed effectively with the nonaltered strain in the laboratory, they were not as viable in natural environments. (C) The altered bacteria were much safer and more effective than the naturally occurring Pseudomonas fluorescens bacteria used in earlier experiments. (D) The altered bacteria were antagonistic to several types of naturally occurring phytopathogens in the soil surrounding the roots of frost-damaged crops. (E) The altered bacteria were released into the environment in numbers sufficient to guarantee the validity of experimental results. 6. Which one of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the proponents’ argument regarding the safety of using altered Pseudomonas syringae bacteria to control frost damage? (A) Pseudomonas syringae bacteria are primitive and have a simple genetic constitution. (B) The altered bacteria are derived from a strain that is parasitic to plants and can cause damage to crops. (C) Current genetic-engineering techniques permit the large-scale commercial production of such bacteria. (D) Often genes whose presence is responsible for one harmful characteristic must be present in order to prevent other harmful characteristics. (E) The frost-damage experiments with Pseudomonas syringae bacteria indicate that the altered variety would only replace the normal strain if released in sufficient numbers. Answers: B,D,C,E,A,D

Source: https://www.jstor.org/stable/461474 Critics have long been puzzled by the inner contradictions of major characters in John Webster’s tragedies. In his The Duchess of Malfi, for instance, the Duchess is “good” in demonstrating the obvious tenderness and sincerity of her love for Antonio, but “bad” in ignoring the wishes and welfare of her family and in making religion a “cloak” hiding worldly self-indulgence. Bosola is “bad” in serving Ferdinand, “good” in turning the Duchess’ thoughts toward heaven and in planning to avenge her murder. The ancient Greek philosopher Aristotle implied that such contradictions are virtually essential to the tragic personality, and yet critics keep coming back to this element of inconsistency as though it were an eccentric feature of Webster’s own tragic vision. ADVERTISEMENT The problem is that, as an Elizabethan playwright, Webster has become a prisoner of our critical presuppositions. We have, in recent years, been dazzled by the way the earlier Renaissance and medieval theater, particularly the morality play, illuminates Elizabethan drama. We now understand how the habit of mind that saw the world as a battleground between good and evil produced the morality play. Morality plays allegorized that conflict by presenting characters whose actions were defined as the embodiment of good or evil. This model of reality lived on, overlaid by different conventions, in the most sophisticated Elizabethan works of the following age. Yet Webster seems not to have been as heavily influenced by the morality play’s model of reality as were his Elizabethan contemporaries; he was apparently more sensitive to the more morally complicated Italian drama than to these English sources. Consequently, his characters cannot be evaluated according to reductive formulas of good and evil, which is precisely what modern critics have tried to do. They choose what seem to be the most promising of the contradictor values that are dramatized in the play, and treat those values as if they were the only basis for analyzing the moral development of the play’s major characters, attributing the inconsistencies in a character’s behavior to artistic incompetence on Webster’s part. The lack of consistency in Webster’s characters can be better understood if we recognize that the ambiguity at the heart of his tragic vision lies not in the external world but in the duality of human nature. Webster establishes tension in his plays by setting up conflicting systems of value that appear immoral only when one value system is viewed exclusively from the perspective of the other. He presents us not only with characters that we condemn intellectually or ethically and at the same time impulsively approve of, but also with judgments we must accept as logically sound and yet find emotionally repulsive. The dilemma is not only dramatic: it is tragic, because the conflict is irreconcilable, and because it is ours as much as that of the characters. ADVERTISEMENT 1. The primary purpose of the passage is to (A) clarify an ambiguous assertion (B) provide evidence in support of a commonly held view (C) analyze an unresolved question and propose an answer (D) offer an alternative to a flawed interpretation (E) describe and categorize opposing viewpoints 2. The author suggests which one of the following about the dramatic works that most influenced Webster’s tragedies? (A) They were not concerned with dramatizing the conflict between good and evil that was presented in morality plays. (B) They were not as sophisticated as the Italian sources from which other Elizabethan tragedies were derived. (C) They have never been adequately understood by critics. (D) They have only recently been used to illuminate the conventions of Elizabethan drama. (E) They have been considered by many critics to be the reason for Webster’s apparent artistic incompetence. 3. The author’s allusion to Aristotle’s view of tragedy serves which one of the following functions in the passage? (A) It introduces a commonly held view of Webster’s tragedies that the author plans to defend. (B) It supports the author’s suggestion that Webster’s conception of tragedy is not idiosyncratic. (C) It provides an example of an approach to Webster’s tragedies that the author criticizes. (D) It establishes the similarity between classical and modern approaches to tragedy. (E) It supports the author’s assertion that Elizabethan tragedy cannot be fully understood without the help of recent scholarship. 4. It can be inferred from the passage that modern critics’ interpretations of Webster’s tragedies would be more valid if (A) the ambiguity inherent in Webster’s tragic vision resulted from the duality of human nature (B) Webster’s conception of the tragic personality were similar to that of Aristotle (C) Webster had been heavily influenced by the morality play (D) Elizabethan dramatists had been more sensitive to Italian sources of influence (E) the inner conflicts exhibited by Webster’s characters were similar to those of modern audiences 5. With which one of the following statements regarding Elizabethan drama would the author be most likely to agree? (A) The skill of Elizabethan dramatists has in recent years been overestimated. (B) The conventions that shaped Elizabethan drama are best exemplified by Webster’s drama. (C) Elizabethan drama, for the most part, can be viewed as being heavily influenced by the morality play. (D) Only by carefully examining the work of his Elizabethan contemporaries can Webster’s achievement as a dramatist be accurately measured. (E) Elizabethan drama can best be described as influenced by a composite of Italian and classical sources. 6. It can be inferred from the passage that most modern critics assume which one of the following in their interpretation of Webster’s tragedies? (A) Webster’s play tended to allegorize the conflict between good and evil more than did those of his contemporaries. (B) Webster’s plays were derived more from Italian than from English sources. (C) The artistic flaws in Webster’s tragedies were largely the result of his ignorance of the classical definition of tragedy. (D) Webster’s tragedies provide no relevant basis for analyzing the moral development of their characters. (E) In writing his tragedies, Webster was influenced by the same sources as his contemporaries. 7. The author implies that Webster’s conception of tragedy was (A) artistically flawed (B) highly conventional (C) largely derived from the morality play (D) somewhat different from the conventional Elizabethan conception of tragedy (E) uninfluenced by the classical conception of tragedy Answers: D,A,B,C,C,E,D

Source: https://www.elibrary.imf.org/view/journals/022/0024/004/article-A009-en.xml Although the United States steel industry faces widely publicized economic problems that have eroded its steel production capacity, not all branches of the industry have been equally affected. The steel industry is not monolithic: it includes integrated producers, minimills, and specialty-steel mills. The integrated producers start with iron ore and coal and produce a wide assortment of shaped steels. The minimills reprocess scrap steel into a limited range of low-quality products, such as reinforcing rods for concrete. The specialty-steel mills are similar to minimills in that they tend to be smaller than the integrated producers and are based on scrap, but they manufacture much more expensive products than minimills do and commonly have an active in-house research-and-development effort. ADVERTISEMENT Both minimills and specialty-steel mills have succeeded in avoiding the worst of the economic difficulties that are afflicting integrated steel producers, and some of the mills are quite profitable. Both take advantage of new technology for refining and casting steel, such as continuous casting, as soon as it becomes available. The minimills concentrate on producing a narrow range of products for sale in their immediate geographic area, whereas specialty-steel mills preserve flexibility in their operations in order to fulfill a customer’s particular specifications. ADVERTISEMENT Among the factors that constrain the competitiveness of integrated producers are excessive labor, energy, and capital costs, as well as manufacturing inflexibility. Their equipment is old and less automated, and does not incorporate many of the latest refinement in steelmaking technology. (For example, only about half of the United States integrated producers have continuous casters, which combine pouring and rolling into one operation and thus save the cost of separate rolling equipment.) One might conclude that the older labor-intensive machinery still operating in United States integrated plants is at fault for the poor performance of the United States industry, but this cannot explain why Japanese integrated producers, who produce a higher-quality product using less energy and labor, are also experiencing economic trouble. The fact is that the common technological denominator of integrated producers is an inherently inefficient process that is still rooted in the nineteenth century. Integrated producers have been unable to compete successfully with minimills because the minimills, like specialty-steel mills, have dispensed almost entirely with the archaic energy and capital-intensive front end of integrated steelmaking: the iron-smelting process, including the mining and preparation of the raw materials and the blast-furnace operation. In addition, minimills have found a profitable way to market steel products: as indicated above, they sell their finished products locally, thereby reducing transportation costs, and concentrate on a limited range of shapes and sizes within a narrow group of products that can be manufactured economically. For these reasons, minimills have been able to avoid the economic decline affecting integrated steel producers. ADVERTISEMENT 1. Which one of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage? (A) United States steel producers face economic problems that are shared by producers in other nations. (B) Minimills are the most successful steel producers because they best meet market demands for cheap steel. (C) Minimills and specialty-steel mills are more economically competitive than integrated producers because they use new technology and avoid the costs of the iron smelting process. (D) United States steel producers are experiencing an economic decline that can be traced back to the nineteenth century. (E) New steelmaking technologies such as continuous casting will replace blast-furnace operations to reverse the decline in United States steel production. 2. The author mentions all of the following as features of minimills EXCEPT (A) flexibility in their operations (B) local sale of their products (C) avoidance of mining operations (D) use of new steel-refining technology (E) a limited range of low-quality products 3. The author of the passage refers to “Japanese integrated producers” primarily in order to support the view that (A) different economic difficulties face the steel industries of different nations (B) not all integrated producers share a common technological denominator (C) labor-intensive machinery cannot be blamed for the economic condition of United States integrated steel producers (D) modern steelmaking technology is generally labor-and energy-efficient (E) labor-intensive machinery is an economic burden on United States integrated steel producers 4. Which one of the following best describes the organization of the third paragraph? (A) A hypothesis is proposed and supported; then an opposing view is presented and criticized. (B) A debate is described and illustrated: then a contrast is made and the debate is resolved. (C) A dilemma is described and cited as evidence for a broader criticism. (D) A proposition is stated and argued, then rejected in favor of a more general statement, which is supported with additional evidence. (E) General statements are made and details given; then an explanation is proposed and rejected, and an alternative is offered. 5. It can be inferred from the passage that United States specialty-steel mills generally differ from integrated steel producers in that the specialty-steel mills (A) sell products in a restricted geographical area (B) share the economic troubles of the minimills (C) resemble specialty-steel mills found in Japan (D) concentrate on producing a narrow range of products (E) do not operate blast furnaces 6. Each of the following describes an industry facing a problem also experienced by United Stated integrated steel producers EXCEPT (A) a paper-manufacturing company that experiences difficulty in obtaining enough timber and other raw materials to meet its orders (B) a food-canning plant whose canning machines must constantly be tended by human operators (C) a textile firm that spends heavily on capital equipment and energy to process raw cotton before it is turned into fabric (D) a window-glass manufacturer that is unable to produce quickly different varieties of glass with special features required by certain customers (E) a leather-goods company whose hand-operated cutting and stitching machines were manufactured in Italy in the 1920s 7. Which one of the following, if true, would best serve as supporting evidence for the author’s explanation of the economic condition of integrated steel producers? (A) Those nations that derive a larger percentage of their annual steel production from minimills than the United States does also have a smaller per capita trade deficit. (B) Many integrated steel producers are as adept as the specialty-steel mills at producing high-quality products to meet customer specifications. (C) Integrated steel producers in the United States are rapidly adopting the production methods of Japanese integrated producers. (D) Integrated steel producers in the United States are now attempting to develop a worldwide market by advertising heavily. (E) Those nations in which iron-smelting operations are carried out independently of steel production must heavily subsidize those operations in order to make them profitable. Answers: C,A,C,E,E,A,E

Source: https://aeon.co/essays/realism-was-a-revolution-in-music-not-just-in-literature In recent years the early music movement, which advocates performing a work as it was performed at the time of its composition, has taken on the character of a crusade, particularly as it has moved beyond the sphere of medieval and baroque music and into music from the late eighteenth and early nineteenth centuries by composers such as Mozart and Beethoven. Granted, knowledge about the experience of playing old music on now-obsolete instruments has been of inestimable value to scholars. Nevertheless, the early music approach to performance raises profound and troubling questions. ADVERTISEMENT Early music advocates assume that composers write only for the instruments available to them, but evidence suggests that composers of Beethoven’s stature imagined extraordinarily high and low notes as part of their compositions, even when they recognized that such notes could not be played on instruments available at the time. In the score of Beethoven’s first piano concerto, there is a “wrong” note, a high F-natural where the melody obviously calls for a high F-sharp, but pianos did not have this high an F-sharp when Beethoven composed the concerto. Because Beethoven once expressed a desire to revise his early works to exploit the extended range of pianos that became available to him some years later, it seems likely that he would have played the F-sharp if given the opportunity. To use a piano exactly contemporary with the work’s composition would require playing a note that was probably frustrating for Beethoven himself to have had to play. ADVERTISEMENT In addition, early music advocates often inadvertently divorce music and its performance from the life of which they were, and are, a part. The discovery that Haydn’s and Mozart’s symphonies were conducted during their lifetimes by a pianist who played the chords to keep the orchestra together has given rise to early music recordings in which a piano can be heard obtrusively in the foreground, despite evidence indicating that the orchestral piano was virtually inaudible to audiences at eighteenth-century concerts and was dropped as musically unnecessary when a better way to beat time was found. And although in the early nineteenth century the first three movements (sections) of Mozart’s and Beethoven’s symphonies were often played faster, and the last movement slower than today, this difference can readily be explained by the fact that at that time audiences applauded at the end of each movement, rather than withholding applause until the end of the entire work. As a result, musicians were not forced into extra brilliance in the finale in order to generate applause, as they are now. To restore the original tempo of these symphonies represents an irrational denial of the fact that our concepts of musical intensity and excitement have quite simply, changed. ADVERTISEMENT 1. It can be inferred from the passage that by “a piano exactly contemporary” (line 30) with the composition of Beethoven’s first piano concerto, the author means the kind of piano that was (A) Designed to be inaudible to the audience when used by conductors of orchestras. (B) Incapable of playing the high F-natural that is in the score of Beethoven’s original version of the concerto. (C) Unavailable to Mozart and Haydn. (D) Incapable of playing the high F-sharp that the melody of the concerto calls for. (E) Influential in Beethoven’s decision to revise his early compositions. 2. Which one of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage? (A) The early music movement has yet to resolve a number of troubling questions regarding its approach to the performance of music. (B) The early music movement, while largely successful in its approach to the performance of medieval and baroque music, has yet to justify its use of obsolete instruments in the performance of music by Beethoven and Mozart. (C) The early music approach to performance often assumes that composers write music that is perfectly tailored to the limitations of the instruments on which it will be performed during their lifetimes. (D) Although advocates of early music know much about the instruments used to perform music at the time it was composed, they lack information regarding how the style of such performances has changed since such music was written. (E) The early music movement has not yet fully exploited the knowledge that it has gained from playing music on instruments available at the time such music was composed. 3. In the second paragraph, the author discusses Beethoven’s first piano concerto primarily in order to (A) Illustrate how piano music began to change in response to the extended range of pianos that became available during Beethoven’s lifetime. (B) Illustrate how Beethoven’s work failed to anticipate the changes in the design of instruments that were about to be made during his lifetime. (C) Suggest that early music advocates commonly perform music using scores that do not reflect revisions made to the music years after it was originally composed. (D) Illustrate how composers like Beethoven sometimes composed music that called for notes that could not be played on instruments that were currently available. (E) Provide an example of a piano composition that is especially amenable to being played on piano available at the time the music was composed. 4. The author suggests that the final movements of symphonies by Mozart and Beethoven might be played more slowly by today’s orchestras if which one of the following were to occur? (A) Orchestras were to use instruments no more advanced in design than those used by orchestras at the time Mozart and Beethoven composed their symphonies. (B) Audiences were to return to the custom of applauding at the end of each movement of a symphony. (C) Audiences were to reserve their most enthusiastic applause for the most brilliantly played finales. (D) Conductors were to return to the practice of playing the chords on an orchestral piano to keep the orchestra together. (E) Conductors were to conduct the symphonies in the manner in which Beethoven and Mozart had conducted them. 5. Which one of the following best describes the organization of the last paragraph? (A) A generalization is made evidence undermining it is presented, and a conclusion rejecting it is then drawn. (B) A criticism is stated and then elaborated with two supporting examples. (C) An assumption is identified and then evidence undermining its validity is presented. (D) An assumption is identified and then evidence frequently provided in support of it is then critically evaluated. (E) Two specific cases are presented and then a conclusion regarding their significance is drawn. 6. It can be inferred from the passage that the author’s explanation in lines 50-54 would be most weakened if which one of the following were true? (A) Musicians who perform in modern orchestras generally receive more extensive training than did their nineteenth-century counterparts. (B) Breaks between the movements of symphonies performed during the early nineteenth century often lasted longer than they do today because nineteenth-century musicians needed to retune their instruments between each movement. (C) Early nineteenth-century orchestral musicians were generally as concerned with the audience’s response to their music as are the musicians who perform today in modern orchestras. (D) Early nineteenth-century audience applauded only perfunctorily after the first three movements of symphonies and conventionally withheld their most enthusiastic applause until the final movement was completed. (E) Early nineteenth-century audiences were generally more knowledgeable about music than are their modern counterparts. 7. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would be most likely to agree with which one of the following assertions regarding the early music recordings mentioned in the third paragraph? (A) These recordings fail to recognize that the last movements of Haydn’s and Mozart’s symphonies were often played slower in the eighteenth century than they are played today. (B) These recordings betray the influence of baroque musical style on those early music advocates who have recently turned their attention to the music of Haydn and Mozart. (C) By making audible the sound of an orchestral piano that was inaudible in eighteenth century performances, these recordings attempt to achieve aesthetic integrity at the expense of historical authenticity. (D) By making audible the sound of an orchestral piano that was inaudible in eighteenth century performances, these recordings unwittingly create music that is unlike what eighteenth century audiences heard. (E) These recordings suggest that at least some advocates of early music recognize that concepts of musical intensity and excitement have changed since Haydn and Mozart composed their symphonies. Answers: D,A,D,B,B,D,D

Source: https://www.jstor.org/stable/24987402 The human species came into being at the time of the greatest biological diversity in the history of the Earth. Today, as human populations expand and alter the natural environment, they are reducing biological diversity to its lowest level since the end of the Mesozoic era, 65 million years ago. The ultimate consequences of this biological collision are beyond calculation, but they are certain to be harmful. That, in essence, is the biodiversity crisis. ADVERTISEMENT The history of global diversity can be summarized as follows: after the initial flowering of multicellular animals, there was a swift rise in the number of species in early Paleozoic times (between 600 and 430 million years ago), then plateaulike stagnation for the remaining 200 million years of the Paleozoic era, and finally a slow but steady climb through the Mesozoic and Cenozoic eras to diversity’s all-time high. This history suggests that biological diversity was hard won and a long time in coming. Furthermore, this pattern of increase was set back by five massive extinction episodes. The most recent of these, during the Cretaceous period, is by far the most famous, because it ended the age of the dinosaurs, conferred hegemony on the mammals, and ultimately made possible the ascendancy of the human species. But the cretaceous crisis was minor compared with the Permian extinctions 240 million years ago, during which between 77 and 96 percent of marine animal species perished. It took 5 million years, well into Mesozoic times, for species diversity to begin a significant recovery. ADVERTISEMENT Within the past 10,000 years biological diversity has entered a wholly new era. Human activity has had a devastating effect on species diversity, and the rate of human-induced extinctions is accelerating. Half of the bird species of Polynesia have been eliminated through hunting and the destruction of native forests. Hundreds of fish species endemic to Lake Victoria are now threatened with extinction following the careless introduction of one species of fish, the Nile perch. The list of such biogeographic disasters is extensive. ADVERTISEMENT Because every species is unique and irreplaceable, the loss of biodiversity is the most profound process of environmental change. Its consequences are also the least predictable because the value of Earth’s biota (the fauna and flora collectively) remains largely unstudied and unappreciated; unlike material and cultural wealth, which we understand because they are the substance of our everyday lives, biological wealth is usually taken for granted. This is a serious strategic error, one that will be increasingly regretted as time passes. The biota is not only part of a country’s heritage, the product of millions of years of evolution centered on that place; it is also a potential source for immense untapped material wealth in the form of food, medicine, and other commercially important substance. 1. Which one of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage? (A) The reduction in biodiversity is an irreversible process that represents a setback both for science and for society as a whole. (B) The material and cultural wealth of a nation are insignificant when compared with the country’s biological wealth. (C) The enormous diversity of life on Earth could not have come about without periodic extinctions that have conferred preeminence on one species at the expense of another. (D) The human species is in the process of initiating a massive extinction episode that may make past episodes look minor by comparison. (E) The current decline in species diversity is human-induced tragedy of incalculable proportions that has potentially grave consequences for the human species. 2. Which one of the following situations is most analogous to the history of global diversity in paragraph 2? (A) The number of fish in a lake declines abruptly as a result of water pollution, then makes a slow comeback after cleanup efforts and the passage of ordinances against dumping. (B) The concentration of chlorine in the water supply of large city fluctuates widely before stabilizing at a constant and safe level. (C) An old-fashioned article of clothing goes in and out of style periodically as a result of features in fashion magazines and the popularity of certain period films. (D) After valuable mineral deposits are discovered, the population of a geographic region booms then levels off and begins to decrease at a slow and steady pace. (E) The variety of styles stocked by a shoe store increases rapidly after the store opens, holds constant for many months, and then gradually creeps upward. 3. The author suggests which one of the following about the Cretaceous crisis? (A) It was the second most devastating extinction episode in history. (B) It was the most devastating extinction episode up until that time. (C) It was less devastating to species diversity than is the current biodiversity crisis. (D) The rate of extinction among marine animal species as a result of the crisis did not approach 77 percent. (E) The dinosaurs comprised the great majority of species that perished during the crisis. 4. The author mentions the Nile perch in order to provide an example of (A) a species that has become extinct through human activity (B) the typical lack of foresight that has led to biogeographic disaster (C) a marine animal species that survived the Permian extinctions (D) a species that is a potential source of material wealth (E) the kind of action that is necessary to reverse the decline in species diversity 5. All of the following are explicitly mentioned in the passage as contributing to the extinction of species EXCEPT (A) hunting (B) pollution (C) deforestation (D) the growth of human populations (E) human-engineered changes in the environment 6. The passage suggests which one of the following about material and cultural wealth? (A) Because we can readily assess the value of material and cultural wealth, we tend not to take them for granted. (B) Just as the biota is a source of potential material wealth, it is an untapped source of cultural wealth as well. (C) Some degree of material and cultural wealth may have to be sacrificed if we are to protect our biological heritage. (D) Material and cultural wealth are of less value than biological wealth because they have evolved over a shorter period of time. (E) Material wealth and biological wealth are interdependent in a way that material wealth and cultural wealth are not. 7. The author would be most likely to agree with which one of the following statements about the consequences of the biodiversity crisis? (A) The loss of species diversity will have as immediate an impact on the material of nations as on their biological wealth. (B) The crisis will likely end the hegemony of the human race and bring about the ascendancy of another species. (C) The effects of the loss of species diversity will be dire, but we cannot yet tell how dire. (D) It is more fruitful to discuss the consequences of the crisis in terms of the potential loss to humanity than in strictly biological loss to humanity than in strictly biological terms. (E) The consequences of the crisis can be minimized, but the pace of extinctions can not be reversed. Answers: E,E,D,B,B,A,C

Source: https://aeon.co/essays/why-would-the-us-make-english-an-official-language Immigrants’ adoption of English as their primary language is one measure of assimilation into the larger United States society. Generally languages define social groups and provide justification for social structures. Hence, a distinctive language sets a cultural group off from the dominant language group. Throughout United States history this pattern has resulted in one consistent, unhappy consequence, discrimination against members of the cultural minority. Language differences provide both a way to rationalize subordination and a ready means for achieving it. ADVERTISEMENT Traditionally, English has replaced the native language of immigrant groups by the second or third generation. Some characteristics of today’s Spanish-speaking population, however, suggest the possibility of a departure from this historical pattern. Many families retain ties in Latin America and move back and forth between their present and former communities. This “revolving door” phenomenon, along with the high probability of additional immigrants from the south, means that large Spanish-speaking communities are likely to exist in the United States for the indefinite future. This expectation underlies the call for national support for bilingual education in Spanish-speaking communities’ public schools. Bilingual education can serve different purposes, however. In the 1960s, such programs were established to facilitate the learning of English so as to avoid disadvantaging children in their other subjects because of their limited English. More recently, many advocates have viewed bilingual education as a means to maintain children’s native languages and cultures. The issue is important for people with different political agendas, from absorption at one pole to separatism at the other. ADVERTISEMENT To date, the evaluations of bilingual education’s impact on learning have been inconclusive. The issue of bilingual education has, nevertheless, served to unite the leadership of the nation’s Hispanic communities. Grounded in concerns about status that are directly traceable to the United States history of discrimination against Hispanics, the demand for maintenance of the Spanish language in the schools is an assertion of the worth of a people and their culture. If the United States is truly a multicultural nation—that is, if it is one culture reflecting the contributions of many—this demand should be seen as a demand not for separation but for inclusion. ADVERTISEMENT More direct efforts to force inclusion can be misguided. For example, movements to declare English the official language do not truly advance the cohesion of a multicultural nation. They alienate the twenty million people who do not speak English as their mother tongue. They are unnecessary since the public’s business is already conducted largely in English. Further, given the present state of understanding about the effects of bilingual education on learning, it would be unwise to require the universal use of English. Finally, it is for parents and local communities to choose the path they will follow, including how much of their culture they want to maintain for their children. 1. It can be inferred from the passage that one of the characteristics of immigrant groups to the United States has traditionally been that, after immigration, relatively few members of the group (A) became politically active in their new communities (B) moved back and forth repeatedly between the United States and their former communities (C) used their native languages in their new communities (D) suffered discrimination in their new communities at the hands of the cultural majority (E) sought assimilation into the dominant culture of the new communities they were entering 2. The passage suggests that one of the effects of the debate over bilingual education is that it has (A) given the Hispanic community a new-found pride in its culture (B) hampered the education of Spanish-speaking students (C) demonstrated the negative impact on imposing English as the official United States language (D) provided a common banner under which the Spanish-speaking communities could rally (E) polarized the opinions of local Spanish-speaking community leaders 3. In lines 38-39, the phrase “different political agendas” refers specifically to conflicting opinions regarding the (A) means of legislating the assimilation of minorities into United States society (B) methods of inducing Hispanics to adopt English as their primary language (C) means of achieving nondiscriminatory education for Hispanics (D) official given responsibility for decisions regarding bilingual education (E) extent to which Hispanics should blend into the larger United States society 4. In lines 64-65 the author says that “It would be unwise to require the universal use of English.” One reason for this, according to the author, is that (A) it is not clear yet whether requiring the universal use of English would promote or hinder the education of children whose English is limited (B) the nation’s Hispanic leaders have shown that bilingual education is most effective when it includes the maintenance of the Spanish language in the schools (C) requiring the universal use of English would reduce the cohesion of the nation’s Hispanic communities and leadership (D) the question of language in the schools should be answered by those who evaluate bilingual education, not by people with specific political agendas (E) it has been shown that bilingual education is necessary to avoid disadvantaging in their general learning children whose English is limited 5. In the last paragraph, the author of the passage is primarily concerned with discussing (A) reasons against enacting a measure that would mandate the forced inclusion of immigrant groups within the dominant United culture (B) the virtues and limitations of declaring English the official language of the United States (C) the history of attitudes within the Hispanic community toward bilingual education in the United States (D) the importance for immigrant groups of maintaining large segments of their culture to pass on to their children (E) the difference in cultures between Hispanics and other immigrant groups in the United States Answers: B , D , E , A, A

This is the official question paper of Introductory Microeconomics Paper of B.A. (Hons.) Economics Course at the University of Delhi. Question 1 to 7 are compulsory. Attempt any five questions. Use of simple calculator is allowed. Part of a question must be answered together. Answers may be written either in English or Hindi; but the same medium should be used throughout the paper. Some symbols may not be visible on mobile devices. Hence we recommend that you use a desktop to view the solutions to the questions. Download the Question Paper as PDF Question 1 (a): There are 10 workers in Australia and each can produce either 2 computers or 30 tons of rice. There are 10 workers in lndia and each can produce either 5 computers or 40 tons of rice.  (i) Draw the production possibility curve for both the countries. (ii) Which. country has absolute advantage in production of computers? (iii) Which country has a comparative advantage in the production of rice? View Solution Question 1 (b): Differentiate between a normative and positive statement. Are the following statements positive or normative. (i) Introduction of minimum-wage law causes unemployment in labour market. (ii) The unemployment rate should be below 3% (iii) Increase in public health expenditure will increase the overall expenditure of government View Solution Question 1 (c):  Use the concept of Production Possibilities Frontier (PPF) to illustrate society's trade-off between two goods. Explain why PPF most likely has a bowed out shape. Show a point that is impossible for the economy to achieve. Show a point that is feasible but inefficient. View Solution Question 2 (a):  Calculate elasticity of demand and elasticity of supply at the equilibrium price for the given demand and supply function: Qd = 80 - 6P; Qs = -10 + 3 P View Solution Question 2 (b): A technological advancement reduces the cost of making computers enormously. Use supply_and demand diagram to show: (i) What happens to equilibrium price and quantity in the market for software? (ii) What will happen to the price and quantity in the market for typewriters? (iii) Whose producers (typewriter or software) will be happy? View Solution Question 2 (c): What are the factors that influence the elasticity of demand for any good? Suppose the price elasticity of demand for good X is about 0.3 and its current price is 60. By how much should the government increase the price if it wants to reduce the consumption of good X by 30 percent? View Solution Question 3 (a):  The demand (Qd) and supply (Qs) for apple is given as Qd = 170 - 2P; Qs= -10 + P Calculate the equilibrium price and quantity of apples. The government passed a law that introduces a statutory minimum price for apples as Rs. 70. Explain the resulting change in market price. quantity demanded and new consumer surplus and producer surplus. View Solution Question 3 (b): Explain whether the following statements are true or false. (i) Pizza and cold drink are considered , complementary goods, if the price of pizza decreases the quantity demanded for both goods will increase. (ii) A drought in the entire state raises the total revenue that farmers receive from the sale of rice, but a drought only in one district reduces the total revenue received by the farmers of that district. View Solution Question 3 (c): When is a price floor no4-binding in nature? Suppose that the government imposes a binding price floor in the wheat market. What would be the effect of this policy, on the quantity of wheat bought and sold? Would the total revenue of the farmers increase or decrease? Explain. View Solution Question 4 (a):  Suppose that a market for tables is described by the following supply and demand functions: Qs= 3P; Qd = 200 - P. Calculate the equilibrium price and the equilibrium quantity of tables. Suppose that a tax of 40 is placed on buyers. Solve for the new equilibrium. What happens to the price received by sellers, the price paid by buyers and the quantity sold? Calculate the dead weight loss. View Solution Question 4 (b): What is the Tragedy of Commons? Suppose Delhi Metro is planning to charge higher fares during rush hours than during the rest of the day. Why is it proposing such a plan? View Solution Question 4 (c):  Explain in detail the market based policies that' government can use to solve the problem of inefficiency caused by externalities. View Solution Question 5 (a): Assume India is an importer of televisions and there are no trade restrictions. Indian consumers buy 10,000 televisions per year, of which 4,000 are produced domestically and 6,000 are imported. Suppose that a technological advance among Japanese television manufacturers causes the world price of televisions to fall by Rs. 100. After the fall in price, Indian consumers buy 12,000 televisions, of which 2,000 are produced domestically and 10,000 are imported. Calculate the change in consumer surplus, producer surplus, and total surplus from the price reduction of Rs. 100. View Solution Question 5 (b): Differentiate between price and cross-price elasticity of demand. Suppose an increase in price of burger from Rs. 40 to Rs. 44 per unit results in an increase in demand for noodles from 100 units to 120 units. Estimate cross price elasticity of demand and comment on the nature of these two goods. View Solution Question 5 (c): Explain the concept of externality using examples. How can the government try to internalize the externality caused by education? View Solution Question 6 (a):  Explore the relationship between deadweight loss from tax. tax revenue and tax size. Will the government be able to increase its revenue if it imposes tax on a good which has inelastic demand? View Solution Question 6 (b): Most of the contagious diseases can be prevented by taking an injection of vaccine in local hospitals. The decision to take the vaccine is purely voluntary and some people choose not to go ahead with it due to the high cost involved. What type of externality occurs for vaccines against highly contagious diseases? Use a suitable diagram to show the market equilibrium quantity of the vaccine. Is the quantity also socially efficient? Suggest one method to achieve a socially efficient outcome. View Solution Question 6 (c):  Suppose a consumer was consuming 100 units of apples initially when his income was Rs. 1000. Calculate the income elasticity (using mid-point method) if 110 units of apples are demanded when the income of consumer falls to Rs. 800. What kind of a good is apple in this scenario? between them. View Solution Question 7 (a): Explain the concept of payoff and equilibrium in games of strategy View Solution Question 7 (b): How does a tariff on imports affect the producer, consumer and total surplus of the importing country? State the arguments in favour of restricting trade. View Solution Question 7 (c): During covid pandemic, construction workers migrated back to their villages and at the same time the demand for construction of houses also fell due to uncertainty and loss of income. Explain using demand and supply diagram, how this would have affected the market for workers and their wages? View Solution END OF PAPER

Question: Differentiate between a normative and positive statement. Are the following statements positive or normative. (i) Introduction of minimum-wage law causes unemployment in labour market. (ii) The unemployment rate should be below 3% (iii) Increase in public health expenditure will increase the overall expenditure of government Answer: Positive Statements:  These are objective and fact-based statements that describe how the world is. They can be tested, verified, or falsified through observation or data. Positive statements do not involve value judgments; they merely describe relationships or facts. Normative Statements:  These are subjective and value-based statements that express opinions or beliefs about how the world should be. They involve value judgments and cannot be tested or verified objectively. Normative statements are often based on ethical, moral, or societal values. "Introduction of minimum-wage law causes unemployment in the labour market." Type:  Positive Statement Explanation:  This statement makes a factual claim about the relationship between minimum wage laws and unemployment. It can be tested and verified with data, making it a positive statement. "The unemployment rate should be below 3%." Type:  Normative Statement Explanation:  This statement expresses a value judgment or opinion about what the unemployment rate should be. It cannot be tested or verified objectively, making it a normative statement. "Increase in public health expenditure will increase the overall expenditure of government." Type:  Positive Statement Explanation:  This statement makes a factual claim about the relationship between public health expenditure and overall government expenditure. It can be tested and verified with data, making it a positive statement.

In games of strategy, the concepts of payoff  and equilibrium  are central to understanding how players make decisions and what outcomes can be expected. 1. Payoff: Definition : A payoff is the outcome or reward a player receives from a particular combination of strategies chosen by all players in the game. It represents the utility, profit, or benefit that a player gets as a result of their own actions and the actions of others. Example : In a simple two-player game where each player can choose to either "Cooperate" or "Defect," the payoff might be represented in a matrix. If both players choose to "Cooperate," they each receive a payoff of 3. If one defects while the other cooperates, the defector might receive 5 while the cooperator gets 0. 2. Equilibrium: Definition : An equilibrium is a situation in a strategic game where no player can benefit by unilaterally changing their strategy, assuming the other players keep their strategies unchanged. The most common type of equilibrium is the Nash Equilibrium . Nash Equilibrium : Named after John Nash, this is a situation where each player's strategy is the best response to the strategies of the other players. At this point, no player has an incentive to deviate from their chosen strategy because doing so would lead to a lower payoff. Example : In the payoff matrix provided above, the outcome where both players choose to "Defect" (with payoffs of (1, 1)) is a Nash Equilibrium. If either player unilaterally changes their strategy to "Cooperate," they would receive a lower payoff (0 instead of 1), so they have no incentive to change. Key Points: Payoff : The reward or outcome a player receives from a set of strategies. Equilibrium : A stable state where no player can improve their payoff by changing their strategy alone. Applications of Payoff and Equilibrium: Economic Markets : Companies decide on pricing, production, and advertising strategies based on expected payoffs and aiming to reach an equilibrium where they cannot improve their situation by changing their strategy alone. Politics : In international relations, countries may choose strategies related to trade, diplomacy, or conflict, considering the payoffs and aiming for equilibrium to avoid conflict or achieve cooperation. Negotiations : Parties involved in negotiations use strategic thinking to maximize their payoff, often seeking a Nash Equilibrium where all parties are satisfied with the outcome. Understanding these concepts is crucial in analyzing and predicting the outcomes of strategic interactions in various fields.

Question: Assume India is an importer of televisions and there are no trade restrictions. Indian consumers buy 10,000 televisions per year, of which 4,000 are produced domestically and 6,000 are imported. Suppose that a technological advance among Japanese television manufacturers causes the world price of televisions to fall by Rs. 100. After the fall in price, Indian consumers buy 12,000 televisions, of which 2,000 are produced domestically and 10,000 are imported. Calculate the change in consumer surplus, producer surplus, and total surplus from the price reduction of Rs. 100. Answer: When the world price of televisions falls by Rs. 100, the change in consumer surplus, producer surplus, and total surplus can be calculated as follows: Initially, Indian consumers buy 10,000 televisions, with 4,000 produced domestically and 6,000 imported. After the price reduction, they buy 12,000 televisions, with 2,000 produced domestically and 10,000 imported. Change in Consumer Surplus: Consumer surplus increases due to the price reduction and the additional quantity purchased. The gain from the price reduction on the initial quantity is Rs. 100 times 10,000 televisions, which equals Rs. 1,000,000. The gain from the additional 2,000 televisions purchased is half of Rs. 100 times 2,000, which equals Rs. 100,000. Therefore, the total increase in consumer surplus is Rs. 1,100,000. Change in Producer Surplus: Producer surplus decreases due to the price reduction and the reduced quantity produced. The loss from the price reduction on the initial domestic production is Rs. 100 times 4,000 televisions, which equals Rs. 400,000. The loss from the reduction in domestic production is half of Rs. 100 times 2,000, which equals Rs. 100,000. Therefore, the total decrease in producer surplus is Rs. 500,000. Change in Total Surplus: Total surplus is the sum of consumer surplus and producer surplus. The net change in total surplus is Rs. 1,100,000 (increase in consumer surplus) minus Rs. 500,000 (decrease in producer surplus), resulting in a net increase of Rs. 600,000. In summary, the price reduction leads to a significant gain in consumer surplus, which more than offsets the loss in producer surplus, resulting in a net increase in total surplus for the economy.

A tariff on imports affects the producer surplus, consumer surplus, and total surplus in the importing country in several ways: 1. Producer Surplus: Increase : A tariff on imports typically raises the price of imported goods, making domestic products more competitive. As a result, domestic producers can charge higher prices, sell more, or both, which increases their producer surplus. This protection from foreign competition allows domestic producers to expand their market share. 2. Consumer Surplus: Decrease : Consumers face higher prices due to the tariff, leading to a reduction in consumer surplus. They either have to pay more for the imported goods or switch to more expensive or lower-quality domestic alternatives. This means they get less value for their money, reducing their overall welfare. 3. Total Surplus: Decrease : The overall economic welfare or total surplus in the country decreases because the losses in consumer surplus typically exceed the gains in producer surplus. Additionally, the government collects revenue from the tariff, but this does not fully offset the deadweight loss, which represents the inefficiencies introduced by the tariff (e.g., reduced trade volume, misallocation of resources). Arguments in Favor of Restricting Trade: Protecting Infant Industries: New or emerging industries may struggle to compete with established foreign competitors. Tariffs can give these industries time to develop and become competitive on the global stage. Preserving Jobs: Tariffs can protect jobs in industries that would otherwise be outcompeted by foreign producers. This is often a politically popular reason, as it is directly linked to the livelihoods of domestic workers. National Security: Some argue that certain industries (e.g., defense, energy, food production) are critical to national security. Protecting these industries from foreign competition ensures that the country can maintain self-sufficiency in crucial sectors. Reducing Trade Deficits: By imposing tariffs, a country might reduce its imports, thereby decreasing its trade deficit. This can be important for countries looking to balance their international payments and stabilize their currency. Protecting Cultural Identity: Tariffs can help protect domestic industries that are part of a country's cultural heritage, such as traditional crafts or foods, from being overwhelmed by foreign goods. Environmental and Ethical Concerns: Some argue for tariffs to protect domestic industries from foreign competitors who may have lower environmental or labor standards. This ensures that domestic producers are not disadvantaged for adhering to higher standards. While these arguments support restricting trade, they must be weighed against the potential costs, including higher prices for consumers, reduced overall economic efficiency, and the risk of retaliatory trade measures from other countries.